div style=”display:none;”> (I) The text box contains a list of diseases. A. Babesiosis B. Borreliosis C. Leishmaniosis D. Giardiosis E. Mal de cadeiras F. Haemonchosis G. Toxocariasis H. Dirofilariosis I. Coccidiosis J. Cryptosporidiosis For each sentence, select the disease that is most likely being described. 1. _________ is caused by a spirochete (corkscrew-shaped bacteria) spread by ticks. 2. _________ is caused by a protozoan which lives in the erythrocytes and is spread between hosts by ticks. 3. _________ is caused by a protozoan which is spread between hosts by sandflies. 4. _________ is caused by roundworms of dogs and cats. The affected persons may exhibit abdominal discomfort, cough, wheezing, or even loss of vision. 5. _________ is caused by Trypanosoma evansi. Affected horses can exhibit ataxia, head tilt and circling, head pressing, hyperexcitability, and staggering gait. 6. _________ disease, according to the WHO 2016 report, causes 18% of the deaths in children under 5 years old. 7. _________ is a mosquito-borne disease characterized by the presence of Dirofilaria immitis worms in the pulmonary arteries. 8. _________ is caused by protozoan parasites (Eimeria spp.) that cause decreased growth and feed efficiency, and mortality in floor-raised chickens. 9. _________ is an enteric protozoal disease that is often seen in international travellers and daycare workers. 10. _________ is one of the most economically significant parasitic diseases of small ruminants worldwide. It is caused by haematophagous nematodes knowns as ‘Barber’s pole worm’. (II) The text box contains a list of drugs. A. Ivermectin B. Advocate C. Melarsomine dihydrochloride D. Praziquantel E. Artemisinin combination F. Fipronil G. Imidacloprid H. Metronidazole I. Permethrin J. Pyrantel For each sentence, select the drug that is most likely being described. 1. _________ does not affect trematodes and cestodes because these groups of flatworms lack GABA receptors. 2. _________ is also used in a wide range of flea treatment, such as spot-on solutions and a slow-release collar. 3. Oral _________ is the recommended treatment for the management of trichomoniasis. 4. _________ is indicated for monthly use for the prevention of canine angiostrongylosis and patent infection, with 100% efficacy against L4 larvae and immature adults (L5) of Angiostrongylus vasorum. 5. _________ is the only FDA-approved product for heartworm adulticidal therapy. 6. _________ is effective against both adult and juvenile forms of tapeworm. It is the treatment of choice where routine chemical prophylaxis against echinococcosis is required. 7. _________ has high safety margins in cats and dogs but should not be used in rabbits. 8. _________ is safe at therapeutic doses, but cats do not tolerate therapeutic doses for dogs. 9. _________ should not be used concurrently with piperazine. 10. _________ is the drug of choice in the treatment of uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria in most endemic countries. (III) The text box contains a list of diseases. A. Onchocerciasis B. Lyme disease C. Leishmaniosis D. Balantidiasis E. Trombiculosis F. Scabies G. Myiasis H. Cheyletiellosis I. Otodectic mange J. Filariasis For each sentence, select the disease that is most likely being described. 1. _________ is known as ‘river blindness’ because it is restricted to areas adjacent to river systems. 2. _________ is generally asymptomatic, but diarrhoea and abdominal aches may occur. A few patients may develop intestinal perforation or dysentery associated with haemorrhage, resembling amoebic dysentery. 3. _________ is known as ‘kala-azar’, and is associated with enlargement of the spleen and liver, and anaemia. 4. _________ is a tick-borne disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, and can lead to the development of dermatological, neurological, arthritic, and cardiac manifestations. 5. _________ is an infestation caused by larval stage of mites, also known as ‘chiggers’. 6. _________ is a contagious skin infestation with Sarcoptes scabiei mites, characterized by thick crust on the skin. 7. _________ is an invasion of animal or human tissue with maggots of several fly species. 8. _________ is a skin infestation caused by mites, which cause affected cats to exhibit head shaking, ear scratching, aural pruritus, and ear droop. 9. _________ is an arthropod-borne infection caused by tissue-invasive roundworms, namely Brugia malayi and B. timori, Wuchereria bancrofti, Onchocerca volvulus, and Loa loa. 10. _________ is a skin disease caused by non-burrowing mites known as ‘walking dandruff’ because they look like white, mobile dandruff flakes. (IV) The text box contains a list of parasite agents. A. Leishmania sp. B. Trypanosoma equiperdum C. Dicrocoelium dendriticum D. Gongylonema sp. E. Schistosoma For each sentence, select the parasite species that is most likely being described. 1. _________ is a digenetic protozoan parasite, which cycles between a flagellated promastigote stage in the gastrointestinal tract of sandflies and an intracellular amastigote stage in the mammalian macrophages. 2. Following ingestion of metacercariae,_________ excyst in the duodenum and migrate upstream to become adult flukes in the rumen and reticulum. 3. _________ is a small lancet-like fluke that infects sheep and cattle. Land snails and ants serve as the first and second intermediate hosts, respectively. 4. In humans,_________ is the only known nematode to reside in the submucosa of the oral cavity and oropharynx. 5. _________ is the causative agent of dourine or ‘mal du coit’. 6. Female _________ worms mature through pairing with the male worm after travelling through the circulatory system. 7. _________ is the second most prevalent cause of moderate-to-severe diarrhoea in children less than 2 years old. 8. _________ has a complex life cycle, involving both free-living and parasitic scenarios. 9. _________ are known as ‘kissing bugs’ and serve as vectors of Trypanosoma cruzi – the causative agent of Chagas disease. 10. _________ are known as ‘follicular mites’ because they inhabit the hair follicles of the affected host.
PART 1 Extended Matching Questions