Select the single correct answer(s) from the five options provided.
1. A 4-month-old kitten presents with cough, dyspnoea and nasal discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
B. Toxocara cati
C. Taenia taenieaformis
D. Ancylostoma tubaeforme
E. Dipylidium caninum
2. Infection with Balantidium coli occurs more often in communities that live in proximity to?
A. Cows
B. Horses
C. Pigs
D. Sheep
E. Dogs
3. In regard to toxoplasmosis, which test can be used to discriminate recent from past infection?
A. Serological detection of IgA
B. Serological detection of IgD
C. Serological detection of IgG avidity
D. Serological detection of IgM
E. Serological detection of IgE
4. Post-mortem examination of a Roach fish with deformed abdomen and displaced fins revealed the following structures. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ligula intestinalis
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Anisakis simplex
D. Anguillicola crassus
E. Contracaecum bancrofti
5. Which one of the following cytokines reduces the inflammatory Th1 response during acute Toxoplasma gondii infection?
A. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α)
B. Interferon gamma (IFN-γ)
C. Interleukin 1 (IL-1)
D. Interleukin 6 (IL-6)
E. Interleukin 10 (IL-10)
6. Which one of the following tapeworm species forms hydatid cysts in humans and sheep?
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Echinococcus multilocularis
C. Taenia saginata
D. Taenia hydatigena
E. Taenia ovis
8. Dogs may contract mites via:
A. Eating faeces infected with mite eggs
B. Direct contact with an infested animal
C. Fomites (inanimate objects, such as a brush or comb)
D. Airborne infection
E. Both B and C
10. Which one of the following is an abortifacient parasite in cattle?
A. Haemonchus contortus
B. Toxocara vitulorum
C. Neospora caninum
D. Cryptosporidium bovis
E. Fasciola hepatica
12. Infection with ___________ causes a venereal disease in cattle.
A. Tritrichomonas foetus
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Cooperia punctata
D. Babesia bovis
E. Schistosome mansoni
13. What is the correct sequence of life cycle stages of Plasmodium species inside humans?
A. Sporozoite, ring-stage, trophozoite, merozoite, schizont, gametocyte
B. Sporozoite, merozoite, ring-stage, schizont, gametocyte, trophozoite
C. Sporozoite, gametocytes, merozoite, ring-stage, trophozoite, schizont
D. Sporozoite, merozoite, ring-stage, gametocyte, trophozoite, schizont
E. Sporozoite, merozoite, ring-stage, trophozoite, schizont, gametocyte
15. Dourine is mainly reported in which of the following European countries?
A. France
B. Spain
C. Italy
D. United Kingdom
E. Greece
17. Autoinfection is a notable feature in the life cycle of ___________.
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Balantidium coli
D. Taenia saginata
E. Enterobius vermicularis
19. Found in dog faeces on a faecal float. What is it?
A. Ancylostoma caninum
B. Dipylidium caninum
C. Taenia solium
D. Taenia saginata
E. Toxocara canis
20. Black flies act as vectors of ___________.
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Dirofilaria tenuis
C. Dipetalonema evansi
D. Toxocara canis
E. Strongyloides stercoralis
22. Which one of the following lists of phases of Eimeria life cycle is in the right order?
A. Sporozoite, oocyst, gamete, zygote, merozoite
B. Zygote, gametes, merozoite, oocyst, sporozoites
C. Oocyst, sporozoite, merozoite, gamete, zygote
D. Merozoite, sporozoite, oocyst, gamete, zygote
E. Oocyst, zygote, merozoite, sporozoite, gametes
23. ___________ is the larval metacestode of Taenia hydatigena.
A. Cysticercus ovis
B. Cysticercus tenuicollis
C. Cysticercus pisiformis
D. Cysticercus bovis
E. Cysticercus cellulosae
24. Strobilocercus fasciolaris is found in ___________.
A. Cats
B. Dogs
C. Ferrets
D. Rats
E. Rabbits
26. ___________ lives independent of a host, but may occasionally be parasitic under certain conditions.
A. Erratic parasite
B. Obligate parasite
C. Facultative parasite
D. Accidental parasite
E. Ectoparasite
28. ___________ is the stage when a parasite can invade a host body and colonize it.
A. Vegetative
B. Latent
C. Trophozoite
D. Juvenile
E. Infective
30. The ‘Rat-tailed’ appearance in horses is caused by ___________.
A. Parascaris equorum
B. Strongylus vulgaris
C. Oxyuris equi
D. Strongylus equinus
E. Strongylus edentatus
31. Toxoplasma gondii infection is acquired mainly through ingestion of:
A. Tissue cysts in undercooked pork
B. Vegetables contaminated with oocysts
C. Water containing oocysts
D. Fruits contaminated with oocysts
E. All of the above
33. Which one of the following is the infective stage of the nematode Nematodirus?
A. First-stage larva (L1)
B. Third-stage larva (L3)
C. Egg containing L1
D. Egg containing L2
E. Egg containing L3
34. ___________ occurs when larvae accidentally infect non-natural hosts wherein they cannot mature into adults but instead wander randomly and cause extensive pathologies.
A. Hypobiosis
B. Phenotypic switching
C. Larva migrans
D. Metabolic switching
E. Catabolism
36. What are the main innate effector cells responsible for killing Leishmania?
A. Macrophages
B. Neutrophils
C. T lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes
E. Natural killer cells
37. ___________ is commonly known as ‘gapeworm’ and can cause a condition in poultry called ‘gapes’, where infected birds show breathing difficulties and stretching of the neck, gasping for breath.
A. Ascaridia galli
B. Capillaria annulata
C. Syngamus trachea
D. Dispharynx nasuta
E. Heterakis gallinarum
39. This organism was detected on honey bees. What is it?
A. Varroa mite
B. Harvest mite
C. Dust mite
D. Plant-feeding mite
E. Trombiculid mite
40. French lungworm disease in dogs is best diagnosed by ___________.
A. Direct faecal smear
B. Baermann technique
C. McMaster technique
D. Faecal culture
E. The modified Knott’s method
42. ___________ is the infective stage of Schistosoma spp.
A. Cercariae
B. Miracidia
C. Rediae
D. Encysted metacercariae
E. Embryonated eggs
43. Which organ is mainly damaged in sheep infected with ovine haemonchosis or teladorsagiosis?
A. Small intestine
B. Abomasum
C. Large intestine
D. Kidney
E. Liver
44. Regarding fleas, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Removing pets from a flea-infested house for a while can help solve flea infestation
B. Leave house vacant for months to starve fleas
C. Fleas cannot survive the winter temperatures
D. Pupae hatch when they sense vibrations
E. Immature fleas can lie dormant for up to a month
45. One application of ____________ can prevent the development of immature Angiostrongylus vasorum stages for 4 weeks.
A. Milbemax®
B. Panacur®
C. Advocate®
D. NexGard Spectra®
E. Trifexis®
46. Which list of stages of Fasciola hepatica life cycle is in the right order?
A. Egg, redia miracidium, sporocysts, cercaria, adult fluke, metacercariae
B. Egg, cercaria, sporocysts, redia, metacercariae, adult fluke, miracidium
C. Egg, miracidium, sporocysts, redia, cercaria, metacercariae, adult fluke
D. Egg, sporocysts, redia, cercaria, metacercariae, adult fluke, miracidium
E. Egg, metacercariae, sporocysts, miracidium, redia, cercaria, adult fluke
49. Benznidazole is more effective at curing ‘Chagas’ disease during which of the following phases of the disease?
A. Acute phase
B. Chronic phase
C. Both acute and chronic phase
D. Neither acute nor chronic phase
E. Subacute phase
50. The control of ___________ can be complicated by hepatic stage, which persists dormant in the liver even after the blood stages are cleared.
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium knowlesi
D. Plasmodium malariae
E. Plasmodium ovale
51. Hyostrongylus rubidus worms are found in the stomach of ___________.
A. Cattle
B. Sheep
C. Pigs
D. Camels
E. Llamas
52. The condition ‘cercarial dermatitis’ is caused by cercariae of which one of the following parasites?
A. Schistosoma spindale
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma japonicum
E. Schistosoma mekongi
53. This was detected in a urine microscope sample from an apparently healthy cat. What is it?
A. Phytoptus species
B. Demodex gatoi
C. Demodex cati
D. Notoedres cati
E. Otodectes cynotis
54. Histological examination of the liver of a 4-year-old Thoroughbred shows granulomatous lesions (~1.5 cm in diameter), which contain nematode eggs surrounded by a fibrous capsule. The eggs have a barrel-like shape with an opercular plug at both ends and a double-layered shell, and measure ~50 × 20 μm. Which one of the following parasites is most likely involved in this case?
A. Capillaria hepatica
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Echinococcus equinus
D. Oxyuris equi
E. Parascaris equorum
55. Cobblestone lesions are found in the gastric mucosa of sheep infected with ___________.
A. Trichostrongylus axei
B. Teladorsagia circumcincta
C. Haemonchus contortus
D. Nematodirus battus
E. Oesophagostomum columbianum
56. The life cycle stages of mites progress in which one of the following sequences?
A. Egg, larva, protonymph, deutonymph, tritonymph, adult
B. Larva, tritonymph, deutonymph, protonymph, egg, adult
C. Larva, protonymph, tritonymph, deutonymph, adult, egg
D. Egg, adult, deutonymph, tritonymph, protonymph larva
E. Tritonymph, deutonymph, protonymph egg, larva, adult
57. Strongylus spp. in equines are commonly known as ___________.
A. Red worms
B. Brown worms
C. Black worms
D. Yellow worms
E. Blue worms
58. Recycling of infective stage within the same host, without exiting the body, is called ___________.
A. Autoinfection
B. Degradation
C. Duplication
D. Hypobiosis
E. Autophagy
60. All of the following are anti-Angiostrongylus vasorum drugs, except?
A. Prinovox®
B. Milbemax®
C. Advocate®
D. Milbactor®
E. Drontal®
62. Which of the following is the scientific name of the equine pinworm?
A. Habronema majus
B. Oxyuris equi
C. Habronema muscae
D. Draschia megastoma
E. Parascaris equorum
65. Which one of the following drugs is effective against the multidrug-resistant Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax?
A. Doxycycline
B. Gentamicin
C. Clarithromycin
D. Penicillin
E. Ciprofloxacin
67. Blowfly strike caused by Lucillia cuprina and L. sericata is a major problem for sheep producers in?
A. Nigeria, Ghana, and Niger
B. Great Britain, Australia, and New Zealand
C. China, Mongolia, and North Korea
D. Colombia, Venezuela, and Cuba
E. USA and Canada
69. Which one of the following was the first drug used in trials in human onchocerciasis to deplete Wolbachia?
A. Doxycycline
B. Gentamicin
C. Clarithromycin
D. Penicillin
E. Ciprofloxacin
73. Which one of the following is the only animal species that can actively shed Toxoplasma gondii oocysts?
A. Squirrel
B. Dog
C. Cat
D. Wolf
E. Red fox
74. Which one of the following treatments is indicated for the management of pulmonary hypertension in a dog with lungworms and pre-existing renal disease?
A. Fluid therapy
B. Blood transfusion
C. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Anthelmintic
E. Antibiotics
75. ___________ can potentiate the ivermectin-induced suppression of microfilaria in onchocerciasis patients.
A. Amoxicillin
B. Doxycycline
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
E. Clindamycin
76. When was Angiostrongylus vasorum first detected in the British Isles?
A. 1954
B. 1968
C. 1960
D. 1911
E. 1970
77. Which two parasites colonize host erythrocytes?
A. Plasmodium and Babesia
B. Toxoplasma gondii and Plasmodium
C. Cryptosporidium and Babesia
D. Toxoplasma gondii and Cryptosporidium
E. Cryptosporidium and Plasmodium
79. ___________ undertakes hepato-pancreatic migration inside the horse.
A. Anoplocephala perfoliata
B. Oxyuris equi
C. Strongylus vulgaris
D. Strongylus equinus
E. Strongylus edentatus
82. ___________ are referred to as cyathostomes.
A. Triodontophorus sp.
B. Small strongyles
C. Strongylus edentatus
D. Strongylus vulgaris
E. Strongylus equinus
84. Which of the following parasites can increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer?
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Trichutis trichiura
C. Ancylostoma tubaeforme
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
E. Heterophyes heterophyes
85. Infected mosquitoes transmit which one of the following Plasmodium stages to humans?
A. Sporozoite
B. Merozoite
C. Male microgamete
D. Female macrogamete
E. Hyponozoite
86. What is the role of frog in the life cycle of Angiostrongylus vasorum?
A. Mechanical vector
B. Paratenic host
C. Intermediate host
D. Biological vector
E. Definitive host
88. Which of these are considered a high-risk group for toxocariasis?
A. Elderly people
B. Pregnant women
C. Immunocompromised patients with contact with dogs
D. Children with geophagia
E. All of the above
89. Which one of the following ticks is called ‘brown tick’?
A. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
B. Ixodes canisuga
C. Dermacentor reticulatus
D. Haemaphysalis punctata
E. Ixodes hexagonus
90. ___________ is a contraindicated procedure in dogs suffering from high intracranial pressure.
A. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
B. Magnetic resonance imaging
C. Bronchoalveolar lavage
D. Anterior chamber paracentesis
E. Blood transfusion
91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the life cycle stages of Plasmodium sp. inside mosquitoes?
A. Gametocytes, oocyst, zygote, ookinete, sporozoite
B. Gametocytes, zygote, oocyst, sporozoite, ookinete
C. Gametocytes, sporozoite, zygote, ookinete, oocyst
D. Gametocytes, zygote, ookinete, oocyst, sporozoite
E. Gametocytes, ookinete, sporozoite, oocyst, zygote
Stay updated, free articles. Join our Telegram channel
Full access? Get Clinical Tree
