div style=”display:none;”> 1. A 4-month-old kitten presents with cough, dyspnoea and nasal discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus B. Toxocara cati C. Taenia taenieaformis D. Ancylostoma tubaeforme E. Dipylidium caninum 2. Infection with Balantidium coli occurs more often in communities that live in proximity to? A. Cows B. Horses C. Pigs D. Sheep E. Dogs 3. In regard to toxoplasmosis, which test can be used to discriminate recent from past infection? A. Serological detection of IgA B. Serological detection of IgD C. Serological detection of IgG avidity D. Serological detection of IgM E. Serological detection of IgE A. Ligula intestinalis B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Anisakis simplex D. Anguillicola crassus E. Contracaecum bancrofti 5. Which one of the following cytokines reduces the inflammatory Th1 response during acute Toxoplasma gondii infection? A. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α) B. Interferon gamma (IFN-γ) C. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) D. Interleukin 6 (IL-6) E. Interleukin 10 (IL-10) 6. Which one of the following tapeworm species forms hydatid cysts in humans and sheep? A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Echinococcus multilocularis C. Taenia saginata D. Taenia hydatigena E. Taenia ovis 7. Which one of the following systems is most impaired in patients with Wuchereria bancrofti infection? A. Lymphatic system B. Nervous system C. Ocular system D. Endocrine system E. Musculoskeletal system 8. Dogs may contract mites via: A. Eating faeces infected with mite eggs B. Direct contact with an infested animal C. Fomites (inanimate objects, such as a brush or comb) D. Airborne infection E. Both B and C 9. Barber’s pole worm is the common name of ___________. A. Chabertia ovina B. Teladorsagia circumcincta C. Haemonchus contortus D. Nematodirus battus E. Nematodirus spathiger 10. Which one of the following is an abortifacient parasite in cattle? A. Haemonchus contortus B. Toxocara vitulorum C. Neospora caninum D. Cryptosporidium bovis E. Fasciola hepatica 11. Which of the following is the infective stage of Fasciola hepatica? 12. Infection with ___________ causes a venereal disease in cattle. A. Tritrichomonas foetus B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Cooperia punctata D. Babesia bovis E. Schistosome mansoni 13. What is the correct sequence of life cycle stages of Plasmodium species inside humans? A. Sporozoite, ring-stage, trophozoite, merozoite, schizont, gametocyte B. Sporozoite, merozoite, ring-stage, schizont, gametocyte, trophozoite C. Sporozoite, gametocytes, merozoite, ring-stage, trophozoite, schizont D. Sporozoite, merozoite, ring-stage, gametocyte, trophozoite, schizont E. Sporozoite, merozoite, ring-stage, trophozoite, schizont, gametocyte 14. ___________ has been incriminated as a possible risk factor for the development of ‘nodding syndrome’. A. Ancylostoma duodenale B. Onchocerca volvulus C. Naegleria fowleri D. Plasmodium vivax E. Toxoplasma gondii 15. Dourine is mainly reported in which of the following European countries? A. France B. Spain C. Italy D. United Kingdom E. Greece 16. In which country was the canine lungworm Angiostrongylus vasorum first detected? 17. Autoinfection is a notable feature in the life cycle of ___________. A. Cryptosporidium B. Giardia lamblia C. Balantidium coli D. Taenia saginata E. Enterobius vermicularis 18. Who were the scientist(s) awarded the 2015 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine? 19. Found in dog faeces on a faecal float. What is it? A. Ancylostoma caninum B. Dipylidium caninum C. Taenia solium D. Taenia saginata E. Toxocara canis 20. Black flies act as vectors of ___________. A. Onchocerca volvulus B. Dirofilaria tenuis C. Dipetalonema evansi D. Toxocara canis E. Strongyloides stercoralis 21. Biomphalaria snails are vectors of ___________. 22. Which one of the following lists of phases of Eimeria life cycle is in the right order? A. Sporozoite, oocyst, gamete, zygote, merozoite B. Zygote, gametes, merozoite, oocyst, sporozoites C. Oocyst, sporozoite, merozoite, gamete, zygote D. Merozoite, sporozoite, oocyst, gamete, zygote E. Oocyst, zygote, merozoite, sporozoite, gametes 23. ___________ is the larval metacestode of Taenia hydatigena. A. Cysticercus ovis B. Cysticercus tenuicollis C. Cysticercus pisiformis D. Cysticercus bovis E. Cysticercus cellulosae 24. Strobilocercus fasciolaris is found in ___________. A. Cats B. Dogs C. Ferrets D. Rats E. Rabbits 25. Parthenogenesis is a type of reproduction that occurs in ___________. A. Styrongyloides spp. B. Ascarids spp. C. Ancylostoma spp. D. Spirometra spp. E. Trichostrongylus spp. 26. ___________ lives independent of a host, but may occasionally be parasitic under certain conditions. A. Erratic parasite B. Obligate parasite C. Facultative parasite D. Accidental parasite E. Ectoparasite 27. Oribatid mites serve as intermediate hosts for ___________. B. Oxyuris equi C. Strongylus vulgaris D. Strongylus equinus E. Strongylus edentatus 28. ___________ is the stage when a parasite can invade a host body and colonize it. A. Vegetative B. Latent C. Trophozoite D. Juvenile E. Infective 29. Which of these drugs can clear the latent liver stage (hyponozoites) of Plasmodium vivax? B. Chloroquine C. Artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) D. Tafenoquine (TQ) E. Doxycycline 30. The ‘Rat-tailed’ appearance in horses is caused by ___________. A. Parascaris equorum B. Strongylus vulgaris C. Oxyuris equi D. Strongylus equinus E. Strongylus edentatus 31. Toxoplasma gondii infection is acquired mainly through ingestion of: A. Tissue cysts in undercooked pork B. Vegetables contaminated with oocysts C. Water containing oocysts D. Fruits contaminated with oocysts E. All of the above 32. Lateral uterine branches in gravid proglottids are counted for diagnosis of infection caused by ___________. A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Dipylidium caninum C. Taenia saginata D. Hymenolepis nana 33. Which one of the following is the infective stage of the nematode Nematodirus? A. First-stage larva (L1) B. Third-stage larva (L3) C. Egg containing L1 D. Egg containing L2 E. Egg containing L3 34. ___________ occurs when larvae accidentally infect non-natural hosts wherein they cannot mature into adults but instead wander randomly and cause extensive pathologies. A. Hypobiosis B. Phenotypic switching C. Larva migrans D. Metabolic switching E. Catabolism 35. Hexagonal basis capituli, short mouthparts (hypostome and palpi), presence of festoons along the posterior margin, and eyes on the side of the scutum, are diagnostic features of which one of the following ticks? A. Ixodes scapularis B. Dermacentor variabilis C. Rhipicephalus sanguineus D. Amblyomma americanum E. Otobius megnini 36. What are the main innate effector cells responsible for killing Leishmania? A. Macrophages B. Neutrophils C. T lymphocytes D. B lymphocytes E. Natural killer cells 37. ___________ is commonly known as ‘gapeworm’ and can cause a condition in poultry called ‘gapes’, where infected birds show breathing difficulties and stretching of the neck, gasping for breath. A. Ascaridia galli B. Capillaria annulata C. Syngamus trachea D. Dispharynx nasuta E. Heterakis gallinarum 38. Cysticerci, which develop in fleas, are the intermediate stage of which one of the following tapeworms? A. Taenia serialis B. Dipylidium caninum C. Taenia multiceps E. Echinococcus granulosus 39. This organism was detected on honey bees. What is it? A. Varroa mite B. Harvest mite C. Dust mite D. Plant-feeding mite E. Trombiculid mite 40. French lungworm disease in dogs is best diagnosed by ___________. A. Direct faecal smear B. Baermann technique C. McMaster technique D. Faecal culture E. The modified Knott’s method 41. ___________ is most likely to interact with and increase the risk of ivermectin neurotoxicity in dogs? 42. ___________ is the infective stage of Schistosoma spp. A. Cercariae B. Miracidia C. Rediae D. Encysted metacercariae E. Embryonated eggs 43. Which organ is mainly damaged in sheep infected with ovine haemonchosis or teladorsagiosis? A. Small intestine B. Abomasum C. Large intestine D. Kidney E. Liver 44. Regarding fleas, which one of the following statements is correct? A. Removing pets from a flea-infested house for a while can help solve flea infestation B. Leave house vacant for months to starve fleas C. Fleas cannot survive the winter temperatures D. Pupae hatch when they sense vibrations E. Immature fleas can lie dormant for up to a month 45. One application of ____________ can prevent the development of immature Angiostrongylus vasorum stages for 4 weeks. A. Milbemax® B. Panacur® C. Advocate® D. NexGard Spectra® E. Trifexis® 46. Which list of stages of Fasciola hepatica life cycle is in the right order? A. Egg, redia miracidium, sporocysts, cercaria, adult fluke, metacercariae B. Egg, cercaria, sporocysts, redia, metacercariae, adult fluke, miracidium C. Egg, miracidium, sporocysts, redia, cercaria, metacercariae, adult fluke D. Egg, sporocysts, redia, cercaria, metacercariae, adult fluke, miracidium E. Egg, metacercariae, sporocysts, miracidium, redia, cercaria, adult fluke 47. Which one of the following anthelmintics is incorrectly matched with its mechanism of action? A. Piperazine: cholinergic receptor antagonist/GABA receptor agonist B. Fenbendazole: binds to tubulin C. Levamisole: cholinergic receptor agonist D. Pyrantel: GABA receptor antagonist E. Organophosphates: indirect-acting cholinergic agonists 48. Although not a lungworm,___________ can induce transient respiratory manifestations in infected pigs due to its extra-intestinal migratory behaviour. A. Ascaris suum B. Hyostrongylus rubidus C. Trichuris suis E. Oesophagostomum dentatum 49. Benznidazole is more effective at curing ‘Chagas’ disease during which of the following phases of the disease? A. Acute phase B. Chronic phase C. Both acute and chronic phase D. Neither acute nor chronic phase E. Subacute phase 50. The control of ___________ can be complicated by hepatic stage, which persists dormant in the liver even after the blood stages are cleared. A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium knowlesi D. Plasmodium malariae E. Plasmodium ovale 51. Hyostrongylus rubidus worms are found in the stomach of ___________. A. Cattle B. Sheep C. Pigs D. Camels E. Llamas 52. The condition ‘cercarial dermatitis’ is caused by cercariae of which one of the following parasites? A. Schistosoma spindale B. Schistosoma mansoni C. Schistosoma haematobium D. Schistosoma japonicum E. Schistosoma mekongi 53. This was detected in a urine microscope sample from an apparently healthy cat. What is it? A. Phytoptus species B. Demodex gatoi C. Demodex cati D. Notoedres cati E. Otodectes cynotis 54. Histological examination of the liver of a 4-year-old Thoroughbred shows granulomatous lesions (~1.5 cm in diameter), which contain nematode eggs surrounded by a fibrous capsule. The eggs have a barrel-like shape with an opercular plug at both ends and a double-layered shell, and measure ~50 × 20 μm. Which one of the following parasites is most likely involved in this case? A. Capillaria hepatica B. Fasciola hepatica C. Echinococcus equinus D. Oxyuris equi E. Parascaris equorum 55. Cobblestone lesions are found in the gastric mucosa of sheep infected with ___________. A. Trichostrongylus axei B. Teladorsagia circumcincta C. Haemonchus contortus D. Nematodirus battus E. Oesophagostomum columbianum 56. The life cycle stages of mites progress in which one of the following sequences? A. Egg, larva, protonymph, deutonymph, tritonymph, adult B. Larva, tritonymph, deutonymph, protonymph, egg, adult C. Larva, protonymph, tritonymph, deutonymph, adult, egg D. Egg, adult, deutonymph, tritonymph, protonymph larva E. Tritonymph, deutonymph, protonymph egg, larva, adult 57. Strongylus spp. in equines are commonly known as ___________. A. Red worms B. Brown worms C. Black worms D. Yellow worms E. Blue worms 58. Recycling of infective stage within the same host, without exiting the body, is called ___________. A. Autoinfection B. Degradation C. Duplication D. Hypobiosis E. Autophagy 59. Black scour is associated with which one of the following parasites? B. Trichuris ovis C. Fasciola hepatica D. Haemonchus contortus E. Taenia solium 60. All of the following are anti-Angiostrongylus vasorum drugs, except? A. Prinovox® B. Milbemax® C. Advocate® D. Milbactor® E. Drontal® 61. Nodular worm is the common name of which one of the following parasite species? A. Trichuris ovis C. Haemonchus contortus D. Taenia solium E. Nematodirus species 62. Which of the following is the scientific name of the equine pinworm? A. Habronema majus B. Oxyuris equi C. Habronema muscae D. Draschia megastoma E. Parascaris equorum 63. Ferrets can be protected from toxoplasmosis by: 64. Female Toxocara canis worms may produce up to ___________. A. 500 eggs per day B. 5,000 eggs per day C. 50,000 eggs per day D. 100,000 eggs per day 65. Which one of the following drugs is effective against the multidrug-resistant Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax? A. Doxycycline B. Gentamicin C. Clarithromycin D. Penicillin E. Ciprofloxacin 66. Which of the following measures can be used to prevent lyme disease? A. Avoiding tick-endemic areas B. Covering bare skin with white clothes C. Using tick repellents on clothing D. Removing ticks from skin as soon as possible E. All of the above 67. Blowfly strike caused by Lucillia cuprina and L. sericata is a major problem for sheep producers in? A. Nigeria, Ghana, and Niger B. Great Britain, Australia, and New Zealand C. China, Mongolia, and North Korea D. Colombia, Venezuela, and Cuba E. USA and Canada 68. A 25-year-old presented complaining of eye redness, photophobia, tearing and severe pain. A fluorescence microscopic examination of a corneal scraping stained with Calcofluor White dye revealed rounded cyst-like structures, 10–20 μm in diameter. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ocular toxoplasmosis B. Ocular larval migrans C. Acanthamoeba keratitis D. Ocular cysticercosis 69. Which one of the following was the first drug used in trials in human onchocerciasis to deplete Wolbachia? A. Doxycycline B. Gentamicin C. Clarithromycin D. Penicillin E. Ciprofloxacin 70. Which one of the following Plasmodium species is responsible for the most deadly form of human malaria? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum E. Plasmodium knowlesi 71. All the following are correct features of fenbendazole except? A. Is a benzimidazole antiparasitic agent B. Disturbs nervous stimuli transmission to muscles in nematodes C. Active against cestodes and nematodes, and some trematodes D. The presence of food in the gut can increase its availability E. May cause pancytopenia 72. A number of small (10–20 μm × 5–15 μm), pear-shaped, bilaterally symmetrical trophozoites were observed in the faeces of a cat with a history of diarrhoea. The trophozoites have two nuclei, eight flagella and a large sucking disc on the ventral surface at the broader end. What are these trophozoites? A. Giardia intestinalis B. Tritrichomonas foetus C. Isospora cati D. Entamoeba histolytica E. Cryptosporidium felis 73. Which one of the following is the only animal species that can actively shed Toxoplasma gondii oocysts? A. Squirrel B. Dog C. Cat D. Wolf E. Red fox 74. Which one of the following treatments is indicated for the management of pulmonary hypertension in a dog with lungworms and pre-existing renal disease? A. Fluid therapy B. Blood transfusion C. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor D. Anthelmintic E. Antibiotics 75. ___________ can potentiate the ivermectin-induced suppression of microfilaria in onchocerciasis patients. A. Amoxicillin B. Doxycycline C. Ciprofloxacin D. Metronidazole E. Clindamycin 76. When was Angiostrongylus vasorum first detected in the British Isles? A. 1954 B. 1968 C. 1960 D. 1911 E. 1970 77. Which two parasites colonize host erythrocytes? A. Plasmodium and Babesia B. Toxoplasma gondii and Plasmodium C. Cryptosporidium and Babesia D. Toxoplasma gondii and Cryptosporidium E. Cryptosporidium and Plasmodium 78. Adult whipworms can be found in the ___________. 79. ___________ undertakes hepato-pancreatic migration inside the horse. A. Anoplocephala perfoliata B. Oxyuris equi C. Strongylus vulgaris D. Strongylus equinus E. Strongylus edentatus 80. Coughing and respiratory distress are observed in first-season grazing calves. What is the likely causative agent? B. Dictyocaulus filaria C. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi D. Protostrongylus rufescens E. Muellerius capillaris 81. Which one of the following includes the cardinal presentation of caval syndrome in dogs? A. Tricuspid regurgitation, haemoglobinuria, dark brown to black urine B. Weight loss, diarrhoea, difficulty breathing C. Inactivity, bulging chest, rapid breathing D. Seizures, blindness, secondary pneumonia E. Vomiting, diarrhoea, lethargy, anorexia 82. ___________ are referred to as cyathostomes. A. Triodontophorus sp. B. Small strongyles C. Strongylus edentatus D. Strongylus vulgaris E. Strongylus equinus 83. ___________ are the Plasmodium stage that exit from the liver. 84. Which of the following parasites can increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer? A. Schistosoma japonicum B. Trichutis trichiura C. Ancylostoma tubaeforme D. Ascaris lumbricoides E. Heterophyes heterophyes 85. Infected mosquitoes transmit which one of the following Plasmodium stages to humans? A. Sporozoite B. Merozoite C. Male microgamete D. Female macrogamete E. Hyponozoite 86. What is the role of frog in the life cycle of Angiostrongylus vasorum? A. Mechanical vector B. Paratenic host C. Intermediate host D. Biological vector E. Definitive host 87. A cough in young dogs can be caused by all of the following parasites except? A. Angiostrongylus vasorum B. Ancylostoma caninum C. Strongyloides species D. Taenia hydatigena E. Toxocara canis 88. Which of these are considered a high-risk group for toxocariasis? A. Elderly people B. Pregnant women C. Immunocompromised patients with contact with dogs D. Children with geophagia E. All of the above 89. Which one of the following ticks is called ‘brown tick’? A. Rhipicephalus sanguineus B. Ixodes canisuga C. Dermacentor reticulatus D. Haemaphysalis punctata E. Ixodes hexagonus 90. ___________ is a contraindicated procedure in dogs suffering from high intracranial pressure. A. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis B. Magnetic resonance imaging C. Bronchoalveolar lavage D. Anterior chamber paracentesis E. Blood transfusion 91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the life cycle stages of Plasmodium sp. inside mosquitoes? A. Gametocytes, oocyst, zygote, ookinete, sporozoite B. Gametocytes, zygote, oocyst, sporozoite, ookinete C. Gametocytes, sporozoite, zygote, ookinete, oocyst D. Gametocytes, zygote, ookinete, oocyst, sporozoite E. Gametocytes, ookinete, sporozoite, oocyst, zygote
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