Section 9. Animal Nursing
Animal Care
Sarah Wagner
QUESTIONS
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1. In general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats?
a. 5 to 7 days
b. 1 to 3 days
c. 48 to 72 hours
d. 28 days
2. As a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for
a. Increase in calories
b. Decrease in fat, increase in fiber
c. Addition of table scraps
d. Decrease in fiber
3. Which of the following is/are antioxidants?
a. Lipoic acids, vitamin E, vitamin C
b. L-Carnitine
c. Vitamin K
d. Krebs cycles
4. Which of the following has the least influence on the acceptability of food to dogs and cats?
a. Salt content
b. Size
c. Shape
d. Color
6. Horses and rabbits are
a. Ruminants
b. Omnivores
c. Cecum fermenters
d. Carnivores
7. Puppies, kittens, and nursing mothers require
a. Similar levels of protein in their diet
b. Vitamin supplementation
c. High levels of fiber for energy
d. Few calories
8. What ratio is compromised by feeding a diet high in bran to horses?
a. Na/Cl
b. Ca/P
c. Vitamins A/D
d. Mg/CO 2
9. Oversupplementation of vegetable oils can result in
a. Increase in serum nitrogen
b. Decrease in absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K
c. Greasy coat
d. Predisposition to autoimmune disease
10. Birds are attracted to
a. Pelleted foods
b. Human foods
c. Brightly colored feed
d. Foods high in salt
11. Psyllium is a source of
a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Fiber
d. Carbohydrates
12. A factor included in body condition score of dogs and cats is
a. Age
b. Visible waist
c. Weight
d. Palpation of ribs
13. Which of the following is/are examples of preservatives?
a. Omega-3 oils
b. Sucrose, dextrose
c. Lactated Ringer
d. Potassium sorbate
14. Thyroid medication, corticosteroids, and anabolic steroids
a. Decrease appetite
b. Stimulate tear production
c. Increase appetite
d. Decrease energy
15. Chondroitin sulfates are an example of
a. Flavor enhancement
b. A nutraceutical
c. FDA-approved treatment
d. Parenteral medication
16. Failure to decrease the grain intake for a horse that transitions from training/work to an idle status may cause
a. Polydipsia
b. Azoturia
c. Anorexia
d. Pyrexia
17. Which of the following vitamins is/are water soluble?
a. Vitamins A and D
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin B 12
d. Vitamin K
18. Hypoallergenic diets oftentimes contain
a. Soybean
b. Corn
c. Rice
d. Ethoxyquin
19. Patients with pancreatitis or hyperlipidemia should avoid foods high in
a. Fiber
b. Dextrose
c. Fats
d. Water
20. Taurine and L-carnitine have been found to aid
a. Inappetence
b. Dysphagia
c. Cardiac muscle function
d. Temperament
21. Which of the following is most often associated with cancer patients?
a. Cachexia
b. Obesity
c. Polyphagia
d. Increased appetite
22. Potassium is critical for
a. Muscle function
b. Weight gain
c. Palatability
d. Digestion
23. Metabolizable energy differs from gross calorie content by
a. Pertaining to canned foods only
b. Measuring the usable energy in a food
c. Measuring only the nutrients in a food
d. Pertaining to dry foods only
24. When feeding horses, it is recommended to measure feed
a. By volume, not weight
b. As a per-day ration
c. By weight, not volume
d. According to supplementation
25. Nutrient content as dry matter means
a. Analysis after water has been added
b. Analysis of nutrient after moisture has been removed
c. Nutrient content of canned foods only
d. Nutrient analysis of dry foods only
27. Horses are generally fed grain to meet what need?
a. Appetite
b. Energy
c. Digestion
d. Vitamin
28. Oversupplementation of which of the following can be detrimental?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K
c. Selenium
d. Biotin
29. Appetite may be stimulated by all of the following, except
a. Certain medications
b. Warming the food
c. Sense of smell
d. Refrigerating the food
30. Deficiency of which of the following major nutrients is likely to have the most rapid negative effect on an animal?
a. Water
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Carbohydrates
31. Flaxseed is an especially good source of
a. B vitamins
b. Vitamin C
c. Omega-3 and six vitamins
d. Vitamin D
32. Enteral feeding is
a. Intravenous supplementation
b. Feeding at timed intervals
c. Feeding orphans
d. Feeding via the gastrointestinal tract
33. If the percent dry matter on the label reads protein 45.7% and fat 30.5%, what patient should not eat this food?
a. A dog with pancreatitis
b. A malnourished 8-week-old kitten
c. A malnourished 8-week-old puppy
d. A postsurgical patient
34. Pet food labels list ingredients
a. In descending order by weight
b. In ascending order by volume
c. By animal-derived ingredients first
d. By nonanimal ingredients first
35. The amino acid found in animal tissue that is required by cats but not dogs is
a. Methionine
b. Taurine
c. Lysine
d. Arginine
36. Which of the following is a normal urine pH for a cat?
a. 6.2
b. 6.0
c. 7.0
d. 7.5
37. AAFCO
a. Oversees pet food advertising
b. Substantiates nutrition claims by implementing procedures for animal feeding tests
c. Differentiates between soy- and meat-based diets
d. Sets parameters for pet food prices
38. When a product is labeled as flavored, it must contain at least what percent of said ingredient?
a. 10%
b. 28%
c. 3%
d. 12%
39. Alfalfa is a palatable source of protein for herbivores. In what macromineral is alfalfa also abundant?
a. Cobalt
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Iron
40. Protein that is not used by the body is converted to energy, and the waste
a. Is stored as fat for energy
b. Is excreted by the kidneys
c. Is filtered by the liver
d. Is reabsorbed as amino acids
41. Which of the following animals can easily become hyperthermic if chased?
a. Hogs and sheep
b. Goats and sheep
c. Goats and hogs
d. Cattle and goats
43. What breed is usually worked in stanchions or headlocks?
a. Holstein cow
b. Simmental bull
c. Angus heifer
d. Jersey bull
44. Which is a dairy breed?
a. Simmental
b. Charolais
c. Hereford
d. Guernsey
45. A deficiency in the essential amino acid taurine in a feline diet can result in
a. Anemia
b. Dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Calcium oxalate uroliths
d. Fatty liver
46. What type of energy-producing nutrient is a dog or cat able to manufacture, if it is not available in the animal’s body?
a. Soluble carbohydrates
b. Insoluble carbohydrates
c. Essential amino acids
d. Nonessential amino acids
47. What species has the highest protein requirement?
a. Cats
b. Dogs
c. Rabbits
d. Sheep
48. What is an example of a soluble carbohydrate?
a. Lignin
b. Glucose
c. Cellulose
d. Pectin
49. Fats are required for absorption, transportation, and storage of what vitamins?
a. A, D, E, and K
b. A, B complex, C, and D
c. B complex, D, E, and K
d. B complex and C
50. A dishwasher and a good quality detergent can be used for disinfecting nondisposable food and water bowls. The recommended temperature to kill most organisms is
a. 100 o F
b. 180 o F
c. 212 o F
d. 220 o F
51. What nutrient is sometimes referred to as ash?
a. Vitamins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. Minerals
52. What mineral is considered to be a trace mineral?
a. Calcium
b. Potassium
c. Iodine
d. Sodium
53. A deficiency of what nutrient can cause anemia?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Iodine
d. Manganese
54. Orphaned kittens no longer need stimulation for urination and defecation at what age?
a. Kittens do not need external stimulation for urination and defecation
b. 4 to 7 days
c. 10 to 14 days
d. 16 to 21 days
55. At what age is a kitten fully able to control its body temperature?
a. 61 days
b. 45 days
c. 28 days
d. 12 days
56. Cow’s milk should not be given to puppies or kittens as a milk replacer because of its
a. Low protein and fat levels
b. High fat and protein levels
c. Low fat and higher protein levels
d. High fat and lower protein levels
57. What is the normal body temperature of a kitten during the first 2 weeks of its life?
a. 102 o F
b. 100 o F
c. 95 o F
d. 104 o F
59. Which of these species is an omnivore?
a. Chinchilla
b. Hamster
c. Rabbit
d. Gerbil
60. Calcium in the diet must be carefully regulated for what species?
a. Chinchilla
b. Hamster
c. Rabbit
d. Guinea pig
61. Rabbits should have an unlimited amount of
a. Alfalfa hay
b. Alfalfa pellets
c. Grass hay
d. Fresh fruits and vegetables
62. Which is not true about rabbit cecal pellets?
a. Also known as “day droppings”
b. Are eaten by the rabbit
c. Are soft, are dark in color, have a strong odor, and are coated in mucus
d. Are formed in the cecum and are rich in vitamins and nutrients
63. Vitamin C supplements must be added to prevent scurvy in what species?
a. Chinchilla
b. Hamster
c. Rabbit
d. Guinea pig
64. The vitamin C levels in guinea pig food decline after how many months of storage?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
65. What species is not nocturnal?
a. Hamster
b. Gerbil
c. Hedgehog
d. Sugar glider
66. Which statement about housing rabbits is accurate?
a. Rabbits should be housed in a warm and humid environment.
b. Two female rabbits housed together will fight.
c. Two male rabbits housed together will fight.
d. Solid-walled cages with wire mesh flooring are best.
67. What species is not a social animal and should be housed alone?
a. Chinchilla
b. Hamster
c. Gerbil
d. Guinea pig
68. Parvovirus causes what disease in cats?
a. Panleukopenia
b. Rhinotracheitis
c. Infectious peritonitis
d. Infectious anemia
69. Feline distemper is caused by the same type of organism as what canine disease?
a. Canine distemper
b. Canine parvovirus
c. Parainfluenza
d. Adenovirus type 2
70. What disease is not characterized by diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration?
a. Feline infectious enteritis
b. Feline infectious peritonitis
c. Feline panleukopenia
d. Feline distemper
71. What type of floor is the most difficult to disinfect?
a. Tile
b. Cement
c. Wood
d. Dirt
72. A dog has a history of not eating for 2 days and has lost 10% of its body weight. This weight loss is most likely due to a loss of
a. Lean body mass
b. Fat
c. Glycogen
d. Water
73. The most important factor in assuring weight loss in an obese cat is
a. Proper diet
b. A healthy cat
c. Diet pills
d. Owner compliance
75. The reason that adult dogs and cats will often have diarrhea after consuming a large quantity of milk is because
a. They are allergic to lactose.
b. They have an inability to absorb lactose.
c. The protein in milk causes a toxic reaction to the microvilli of the small intestine, thus decreasing the amount of nutrient that can be absorbed.
d. Milk coats the intestine, preventing the reabsorption of water, thus leading to diarrhea.
76. Why should you not feed dog food to a cat?
a. Cats have a lower requirement for essential fatty acids than dogs.
b. Cats have a lower requirement for arginine than dogs.
c. Cats have a higher requirement for essential carbohydrates than dogs.
d. Cats have a higher requirement for taurine than dogs.
77. Cholesterol would be found in the highest concentration in
a. Corn oil
b. Peanut butter
c. Turkey breast without the skin
d. Celery
78. An all-meat diet will cause a deficiency in
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Magnesium
79. Lack of what nutrient is associated with prolonged clotting times?
a. Vitamin B 12
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
80. A cat fed only fish would be most at risk for which of the following problems?
a. Pansteatitis
b. Encephalomalacia
c. Anemia
d. Mulberry heart disease
81. Feeding an animal raw egg whites would put the animal at risk of a(n)
a. Iron deficiency
b. Vitamin E deficiency
c. Biotin deficiency
d. Protein deficiency
82. Cats should not be fed dog food because
a. It is unpalatable.
b. It will give them diarrhea.
c. The fat content is too low.
d. The amino acid content is too low.
83. Great care must be taken when dehorning a goat with a hot electric dehorner because.
a. The hair may catch fire.
b. The smell of burning skin scares goats.
c. It is difficult to control dehorning pain in goats.
d. The heat may damage their brains.
84. A cat being fed a homemade vegetarian diet could be expected to be deficient in all of the following, except
a. Vitamin A
b. Niacin
c. Vitamin B 12
d. Protein
85. Which of these signs is not seen in fearful animals?
a. Constricted pupils
b. Standing or lying tensely at the rear of the cage
c. Facing the back corner of the cage, glancing over the shoulder to keep people in sight
d. Ears pulled back
86. The reason why lamb was used in the past as the protein source in many hypoallergenic veterinary diets was because
a. Lamb is more digestible than beef and poultry products.
b. Lamb causes less pancreatic stimulation.
c. There was a time when most dogs and cats had not eaten lamb before.
d. Lamb has a higher biologic value than other typical meat products.
87. If there were no contraindications for the following feeding routes, the best route would be via
a. The cephalic vein
b. The jugular vein
c. A gastric tube
d. Femoral artery
88. An advantage of a nasoesophageal (NE) tube over a gastrostomy tube is
89. After more than 1 day of not eating, animals are deriving most of their energy from
a. Fat stores
b. Glycogen stores
c. Protein stores
d. Fiber pockets
90. After more than 1 day of not eating, animals are deriving most of their glucose from
a. Fat stores
b. Glycogen stores
c. Lean body mass
d. Fiber pockets
91. The following would all be good methods of inducing a cat to eat except
a. Heating the food
b. Covering the cage door with a towel
c. Sprinkling the food with onion powder to increase the olfactory properties of the food
d. Placing the food in a wide bowl
92. What condition is not exacerbated by obesity?
a. Joint problems
b. Diabetes
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Anesthetic complications
93. What is not commonly associated with food allergies?
a. Bilateral otitis externa
b. Diarrhea
c. A sudden change in diet
d. A nonseasonal pruritus
94. When using an elimination diet to test whether a dog has a food allergy, improvement should be seen within
a. 24 hours
b. 2 days
c. 1 week
d. 1 month
95. What has been demonstrated to prevent periodontal disease?
a. Tartar-control diets
b. Chew toys
c. Instrumental dental cleaning
d. Dry food
96. For large-breed dogs, in addition to a genetic predisposition, research has also incriminated ___ in obesity.
a. A high percent of the calories in the diet from protein
b. A high percent of the calories in the diet from carbohydrates
c. A high percent of the calories in the diet from fat
d. An energy-dense food provided ad libitum to puppies
97. Which of the following would be most detrimental to feed a growing puppy?
a. An over-the-counter multivitamin
b. Multivitamin tablet
c. Vitamin C tablet
d. Calcium supplement
98. Greasy, foul-smelling feces usually indicates
a. Too high protein content in the diet
b. Too high fat content in the diet
c. Too high carbohydrate content in the diet
d. A problem with fat absorption
99. The best measure of whether an animal is eating the right amount of food is
a. If the proximate analysis of the food is correct for the life stage of the animal
b. If the CHO/fat/protein ratio is adjusted correctly for the animal
c. If the animal has a 3 out of 5 body condition score
d. If the animal eats all of the food it is given
100. A dog’s ideal weight is 20 kg and its actual weight is 30 kg. If each day you fed the dog 200 kcal less than what it would take for the dog to maintain its ideal weight, how long would it take for the animal to reach its ideal weight?
a. 3 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
102. A common complaint that clients make after their overweight dog has been switched to a high-fiber diet is
a. Anemia
b. Lethargy
c. Vomiting
d. Flatulence
103. The guaranteed analysis statement on the label of a bag of food will not give any information on the
a. Minimum amount of fat in the diet
b. Minimum amount of protein in the diet
c. Maximum amount of fiber in the diet
d. Digestibility of the protein in the diet
104. A problem with giving guinea pigs a diet appropriate for rabbits is
a. Guinea pigs have a higher requirement for protein than rabbits.
b. Rabbits have a higher requirement for copper, which is toxic to guinea pigs.
c. Guinea pigs have a higher requirement for vitamin C than rabbits.
d. Rabbits do not need vitamin B 12.
105. Advantages of giving an animal in respiratory distress a high-fat diet would not include which of the following?
a. Less CO 2 is produced from the metabolism of fat.
b. Fat is more energy dense.
c. Diets are more palatable.
d. Fat in the diet will cause an animal to breathe slower.
106. Which of the following would be the most accurate estimate of the energy a foodstuff would contribute to an animal?
a. Gross energy
b. Net energy
c. Digestible energy
d. Metabolizable energy
107. Which of the following terms would most likely predict forage with a high ADF value?
a. Stemmy
b. Prebloom
c. Leafy
d. Green
108. By determining the nitrogen content of a food sample, one can estimate the amount of ___ in the diet.
a. Fat
b. Fiber
c. Carbohydrate
d. Protein
109. A client of your practice calls you up with a question about the diet that was prescribed for her cat. This client noticed on the label that the cat food contains several kinds of animal protein. The client says that because all animal protein contains cholesterol, she wondered whether the food contained good cholesterol or bad cholesterol. Which of the following statements would not be included in your answer?
a. Plant products and animal products contain cholesterol.
b. Cholesterol is an essential nutrient in the body used for estrogen, testosterone, bile, and so forth.
c. What is referred to as “good cholesterol” is actually a lipoprotein (HDL) that carries cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver.
d. Bad cholesterol is actually a lipoprotein (LDL) that carries cholesterol to the peripheral tissues.
110. A client asks you about a new nutraceutical that you have never heard about. The least important question, as far as your ability to judge the efficacy of the product, would be
a. Has any research been done by an independent organization?
b. Have any results been reported in a refereed journal?
c. Have any toxicity studies been done?
d. How expensive is the product?
111. Which of the following would be least likely to induce diarrhea in a cat?
a. Increased fiber in the diet
b. Panleukopenia
c. Food allergy
d. Increased salt content in the diet
112. Which of the following would be an unlikely treatment for chronic diarrhea?
a. Increasing fiber in the diet
b. Decreasing fiber in the diet
c. Increasing digestibility of the food
d. Increasing the amount of vitamin C in the diet
114. Which of the following does not result in glucose in the blood?
a. Diet
b. Conversion of protein to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver
c. Breakdown of glycogen
d. Conversion of fatty acids to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver
115. Food allergies are usually due to which constituent of the diet?
a. Fat
b. Antioxidants
c. Preservatives
d. Protein
116. Typical sources of fiber in dog food would include all of the following, except
a. Peanut hulls
b. Beet pulp
c. Cellulose
d. Cornstarch
117. The primary difference in a diet to decrease hairballs in cats as compared with other cat diets is
a. Amount of protein
b. Amount of fat
c. Amount of fiber
d. Amount of salt
118. Of the following, the least dangerous if consumed in excessive amounts over requirements would be
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B 12
c. Copper
d. Calcium
119. The most common nutritionally caused problems in dogs and cats is/are
a. Joint problems
b. Cardiac problems
c. Reproductive problems
d. Obesity
120. The best plan to get an overweight pet to lose weight is to
a. Increase the amount of fiber in the diet.
b. Decrease the amount of fat in the diet.
c. Give the pet diet pills.
d. Feed the pet less and exercise it more.
121. Acidifying diets will help prevent what type of bladder stones?
a. Struvite
b. Oxalate
c. Biurate
d. Ammonium
122. If a cat is eating grass, then you know that the
a. Cat wants to vomit
b. Cat has worms
c. Cat has a nutritional deficiency
d. Cause is unknown
123. Which of the following housing conditions is most likely to aggravate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (heaves) in horses?
a. Low temperature in the stable
b. Feeding dusty hay
c. Screen partitions between stalls
d. Fresh wood shavings for bedding
124. What species is least likely to require frequent cage cleaning?
a. Rats
b. Mice
c. Gerbils
d. Hamsters
125. The most useful preventive measures against kennel cough in a shelter would be
a. Frequently cleaning exercise areas of feces
b. Frequently cleaning kennels of urine
c. Aggressively cleaning and disinfecting food and water dishes
d. Ensuring that air circulation is good
126. Low environmental humidity puts neonatal puppies and kittens at risk for
a. Chilling
b. Dehydration
c. Diarrhea
d. Retardation
128. During the first week of life, orphaned puppies and kittens should be reared in an environmental temperature of
a. 32.2° C (90° F)
b. 26.7° C (80° F)
c. 21.1° C (70° F)
d. 15.6° C (60° F)
129. To keep animals germ free inside a barrier unit, the air pressure inside compared with that outside must be
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Equal
d. Much lower
130. In an isolation unit where sick animals are housed, the air pressure in the unit compared with that in the quarters housing healthy animals must be
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Equal
d. Much higher
131. Very low humidity in a colony of rats may precipitate a problem known as
a. Stud tail
b. Wet tail
c. Fan tail
d. Ring tail
132. A roll-bar in a farrowing crate keeps the sow from contacting the pen wall as she lies down; the function of the roll-bar is to prevent
a. Injuring the teats
b. Upsetting the food
c. Crushing the young
d. Breaking the pen wall
133. The squeeze-back is a desirable feature in cage housing for
a. Cats
b. Rats
c. Dogs
d. Monkeys
134. Adult males of what species should not be group-housed?
a. Rats
b. Mice
c. Guinea pigs
d. Gerbils
135. For good sanitation, outdoor runs should have floors constructed of
a. Dirt
b. Grass
c. Concrete
d. Wood
136. “Red tears” (chromodacryorrhea) in rats is caused by
a. Stress
b. Infection
c. Toxins
d. Impaired blood clotting
137. Ducks and geese that eat moldy feed frequently succumb to
a. Dermatophytosis
b. Aspergillosis
c. Pediculosis
d. Actinobacillosis
138. Filter caps on rodent shoebox cages reduce the
a. Ammonia levels
b. Horizontal transmission of pathogens
c. Cage temperatures
d. Litter sizes of pregnant females
139. The most common health problem encountered in cattle that have been recently shipped is
a. Pneumonia
b. Diarrhea
c. Lameness
d. Pinkeye
140. Which of the following is not required of a well-built doghouse?
a. Windproof against drafts
b. Raised off the ground
c. Insulated against cold
d. Spacious and roomy inside
141. Which of these is not a common strategy for managing heat stress in dairy cattle?
a. Feeding early in the day
b. Placing fans over housing areas
c. Sprinkling or misting cows with water
d. Cooling the holding pen near the milking parlor
143. Although there is good serologic evidence that animals in shelters are exposed to many of the same pathogens, not all shelters experience a disease problem. The difference can best be explained by variance in the
a. Degrees of pathogenic virulence
b. Standards of management practice
c. Prevailing weather conditions
d. Genetic makeup of the animals
144. An inappropriate use of a puppy crate is for
a. Housebreaking
b. Traveling
c. Punishing
d. Sleeping
145. When young livestock are exposed to poor ventilation or cold stress, what outbreaks often occur?
a. Pinkeye
b. Dermatophilosis
c. Pneumonia
d. Polioencephalomalacia
146. If you are visiting all of the housing areas on a farm, in what order should you view or examine the animals?
a. Cows, weaned heifers or steers, calves
b. Weaned heifers or steers, calves, cows
c. Calves, cows, weaned heifers or steers
d. Calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows
147. An especially important period of puppy development that is critical to normal behavior as an adult is
a. The nursing period
b. Whelping
c. Weaning
d. The socialization period
148. Puncture wounds in horses and other species pose a particular risk for the development of
a. Rabies
b. Colibacillosis
c. Tetanus
d. Strangles
149. The height of a nipple watering device must be adjusted according to the size of the pigs in the pen. It should be set at a level that is
a. Even with the elbow of the pigs
b. Just above the shoulder of the pigs
c. Halfway between the shoulder and the elbow of the pigs
d. Comfortably reachable when the pigs are lying down
150. The number of nipple watering devices in group pens varies according to the size and number of animals involved. A pen of 20 pigs should have a minimum of
a. 1 nipple per pen
b. 2 nipples per pen
c. 3 nipples per pen
d. 4 nipples per pen
151. What is a newborn piglet’s lower critical temperature?
a. 70° to 75° F
b. 65° to 70° F
c. 110° to 115° F
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