Section 5. Pharmacology
Sarah Wagner and Joann Colville
QUESTIONS
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1. Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals, because in neonates the drugs are
a. Biotransformed (metabolized) more rapidly
b. Absorbed more slowly from the gastrointestinal tract
c. Not biotransformed
d. Biotransformed (metabolized) more slowly
2. Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransformation of most drugs?
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Spleen
3. The generic name for a drug is also called the
a. Trade name
b. Chemical name
c. Proprietary name
d. Nonproprietary name
4. You are asked to administer a drug that is supplied as an enteric-coated tablet at 100 mg, 50 mg, and 25 mg; you require 25 mg but have available 50-mg tablets only. You should
a. Use a pill splitter to divide the 100-mg tablet into quarters to have the smallest piece.
b. Use a pill splitter to divide the 50-mg tablet into halves to have the most accurate dose.
c. Administer the 50-mg tablet but then skip the next scheduled dosing.
d. Order or purchase 25-mg tablets for the dosing schedule.
5. A prescription reads “2 tab q4h po prn until gone.” The translation of these instructions is
a. Two tablets are to be taken four times per day for pain until all tablets are gone.
b. Two tablets are to be taken four times per day under supervision by the veterinarian until all tablets are gone.
c. Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hours with food and water until all tablets are gone.
d. Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hours by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone.
6. Ten milliliters of a 2.5% solution of thiopentone contains
a. 250 mg of thiopentone
b. 25 mg of thiopentone
c. 100 mg of thiopentone
d. 2.5 mg of thiopentone
7. The percentage of the total dose that ultimately reaches the bloodstream is called
a. Absorption
b. Distribution
c. Bioavailability
d. Clearance
8. Cholinergic agents do all of the following except
a. Slow heart rate
b. Increase blood flow to intestinal tract
c. Decrease diameter of bronchioles
d. Cause peripheral vasodilation
10. The most common adverse side effects of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are
a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
c. Ototoxicity and neurotoxicity
d. Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neurotoxicity
11. Which statement regarding tetracyclines is true?
a. They are bactericidal.
b. They alter the permeability of the cell wall and cause lysis.
c. Currently many bacteria are resistant to them.
d. They are unable to penetrate the bacterial cell wall.
12. To what other drug class is a cephalosporin-class drug closely related?
a. Tetracyclines
b. Sulfas
c. Penicillins
d. Fluoroquinolones
13. Because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of
a. Nervous tissue
b. Urinary tract
c. Skin
d. Joint capsules
14. The use of fluoroquinolones as antiinfective agents should be done with great caution or not at all in
a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Horses
d. Birds
15. The antiinfective drug that should be avoided in all food-producing animals is
a. Lincosamides
b. Cephalexin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Chloramphenicol
16. Penicillins are primarily excreted by the
a. Small intestine
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Stomach
17. Acepromazine must be used with caution or not at all in
a. Bitches
b. Tomcats
c. Cows
d. Stallions
18. The benzodiazepine derivative diazepam is often administered in combination with
a. Droperidol
b. Morphine
c. Ketamine
d. Xylazine
19. If using a regular disposable-type syringe, which of the following drugs should not be preloaded and left for a time?
a. Acepromazine
b. Atropine
c. Diazepam
d. Ketamine
20. A 10-kg dog has inadvertently been administered a dose of xylazine hydrochloride intended for a 30-kg dog. The correct reversal agent for this overdose is
a. Yohimbine
b. Atipamezole
c. Noradrenalin
d. Atropine
21. Griseofulvin acts on
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria
d. Dermatophytes
22. What is not true of sulfonamides?
a. They can cause renal failure.
b. They can cause skin eruptions.
c. They can cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
d. They can cause hepatitis.
23. What antiinfective compounds, when given to juvenile animals, can impair cartilage development?
a. Cephalosporins
b. Fluoroquinolones
c. Penicillins
d. Macrolides
24. Potentiated penicillins
a. Have a narrow spectrum of action relative to regular penicillins
b. Include cephalosporins
c. Are active against b-lactamase–producing bacteria
d. Are not used in treating mastitis
26. Xylazine
a. Is safe in all dogs
b. Can be reversed with naloxone
c. Provides some analgesia
d. Can cause priapism in stallions
27. Propofol
a. Is a potent analgesic
b. Can be given via the IM and IV routes
c. Is best administered as a single bolus
d. Can be given in incremental doses
28. Butorphanol
a. Is an antibiotic
b. Is an antitussive
c. Can be reversed using yohimbine
d. Is contraindicated in the cat
29. An iodophor
a. Has a longer action than basic iodine compounds
b. Is not inactivated by organic materials
c. Is not an irritant at concentrations generally used
d. Provides adequate disinfection with a single application
30. Heartgard contains ivermectin, which
a. Prevents dogs from developing congestive heart failure
b. Is also effective in treating tapeworms
c. Is used to prevent heartworm infection
d. Can be administered orally only
31. The active drug in ProHeart is moxidectin, a member of the drug class
a. Arsenical
b. Organophosphate
c. Avermectin
d. Pyrantel
32. A risk to veterinary technicians who administer prostaglandins is
a. Acne
b. Liver failure
c. Kidney damage
d. Inducing an asthma attack
33. Loop diuretics such as furosemide
a. Cause dehydration in normal animals
b. Cannot be used simultaneously with ACE inhibitors
c. Are unsafe for use in animals with pulmonary edema
d. May cause hypokalemia with chronic use
34. Pain receptors are called
a. Nociceptors
b. C fibers
c. Proprioceptors
d. Prostaglandins
35. If it is accidentally administered as an IV bolus, lidocaine may cause
a. Full body numbness
b. Seizures
c. Bradyarrhythmia
d. Polyuria
36. Which of these opioids is an agonist/antagonist?
a. Oxymorphone
b. Meperidine
c. Butorphanol
d. Fentanyl
37. Acepromazine maleate causes
a. Respiratory depression
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypotension
d. Reduced salivation
38. What is the ratio between the toxic dose and therapeutic dose of a drug used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for a particular treatment?
a. Toxic index
b. LD50
c. ED50
d. Therapeutic index
39. Aspirin may be safely used in cats as an NSAID, but it should be noted that its half-life in this species approximates
a. 2 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 15 hours
d. 30 hours
40. Which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators?
a. They prevent the female from laying eggs.
b. They effectively kill all adult stages.
c. They are insecticidal with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals.
d. They are neurotoxic to mammals.
42. What is not a short-term effect of corticosteroid therapy?
a. Polyuria
b. Polyphagia
c. Delayed healing
d. Osteoporosis
43. A common side effect of antihistamine drugs such as diphenhydramine is
a. Polyuria
b. Sedation
c. Pruritus
d. Panting
44. The H 2 receptors are found in the
a. Gastric mucosa
b. Saliva
c. Carotid arteries
d. Aortic arch
45. Thiobarbiturates should be administered with great care or not at all to
a. Collies
b. Greyhounds
c. Rottweilers
d. Spaniels
46. What drug is contraindicated in the treatment of glaucoma?
a. Atropine sulfate
b. Carbachol
c. Miotics
d. Pilocarpine
47. A chronotropic agent affects the
a. Force of a contraction
b. Rate of a contraction
c. Rhythm of a contraction
d. Rate of relaxation
48. Puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from __ drops administered sublingually.
a. Dobutamine
b. Digitalis
c. Doxapram
d. Diazepam
49. Parenteral administration of phenylbutazone should be via __ only.
a. Subcutaneous injection
b. Intramuscular injection
c. Subcutaneous or intramuscular injection
d. Intravenous injection
50. Intradermal injections are used primarily for
a. Insulin injections
b. Antibiotic injections
c. Vaccinations
d. Allergy testing
51. Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in the
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Lungs
d. Spleen
52. The main reason that generic forms of drugs are less expensive than trademark name drugs is because generic brands
a. Use less expensive ingredients
b. Are not advertised heavily
c. Do not incur the expense of developing a new drug
d. Do not work as well as trademark name drugs
53. Repository forms of parenteral drugs
a. Contain a special coating that protects the drug from the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach
b. Are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration
c. Are composed of specially prepared plant or animal parts rather than being manufactured from chemicals
d. Are extremely irritating to the tissues
54. All of the following organs may facilitate the elimination of drugs except the
a. Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Lungs
d. Spleen
55. What liquid form of drug is most commonly administered intravenously?
a. Emulsion
b. Solution
c. Suspension
d. Elixir
57. The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the
a. FDA
b. EPA
c. USDA
d. DEA
58. A drug that has extreme potential for abuse and no approved medicinal purpose in the United States is classified as
a. C-I
b. C-II
c. C-IV
d. C-V
59. A drug given by which of the following routes reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest?
a. Orally
b. Intramuscularly
c. Subcutaneously
d. Intravenously
60. Which of these drugs is not an antifungal drug?
a. Griseofulvin (Fulvicin)
b. Clotrimazole (Otomax)
c. Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
d. Sulfadimethoxine (Albon)
61. An example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a β-lactamase inhibitor is
a. Amoxicillin
b. Clavamox
c. Tetracycline
d. Penicillin
62. In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects?
a. Barbiturates
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Phenothiazine tranquilizers
d. Dissociative anesthetics
63. The best means of assuring that a particular antibiotic treatment will be successful is to
a. Treat for no less than a full 2-week course.
b. Collect a sample from the infected area for culture and sensitivity.
c. Use the highest dose that is considered nontoxic.
d. Use a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
64. Dr. Blackman prescribed a particular antibiotic for a rabbit with a Pasteurella infection and asked you to educate the client regarding special instructions for administration of the drug. You told the client that she should wear gloves when handling this medication, because it has been associated with a rare adverse reaction in humans: aplastic anemia. Based on this information, the drug that you dispensed was most likely
a. Gentamicin
b. Tetracycline
c. Erythromycin
d. Chloramphenicol
65. The term anaphylaxis refers to
a. A severe, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction
b. The development of resistance to a particular antimicrobial drug
c. The disruption of bacteria’s normal metabolic activity, causing cell death
d. Bacterial cell death as a result of impaired production of nucleic acids
66. A very useful group of broad-spectrum drugs, whose popularity has more recently declined because of numerous potential side effects, including keratoconjunctivitis sicca, polyarthritis (especially in Doberman pinschers), hematuria, photosensitivity, and hypothyroidism, is the
a. Sulfonamides
b. Macrolides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Fluoroquinolones
67. Which of the following statements about tetracyclines is true?
a. Tetracyclines are bacteriocidal.
b. Oral absorption of tetracyclines is increased in the presence of food.
c. Tetracyclines are potentially nephrotoxic and ototoxic.
d. Tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals.
69. Amoxicillin (Amoxi-Drop) was prescribed for Tallulah, a 4-year-old female Chihuahua, who was being discharged after a hospitalization. Dr. Segal asks you to give her owner discharge instructions. You advise the client of all of the following except
a. She should call if she notices any adverse side effects as a result of the medication.
b. She should complete all the medication dispensed, even if Tallulah is feeling well and her symptoms have resolved.
c. She should administer the medication on an empty stomach.
d. The medication should be refrigerated.
70. Antimicrobial drugs like enrofloxacin (Baytril), marbofloxacin (Zeniquin), and orbifloxacin (Orbax) all belong to which group of antibiotics?
a. Penicillins
b. Cephalosporins
c. Fluoroquinolones
d. Aminoglycosides
71. Which of the following drugs is least likely to kill the normal flora in the gut of a rabbit, causing severe diarrhea?
a. Sulfonamide (Tribrissen)
b. Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid (Clavamox)
c. Cephalothin (Keflin)
d. Enrofloxacin
72. Guaifenesin is an example of a(n)
a. Expectorant
b. Antitussive
c. Bronchodilator
d. Mucolytic agent
73. Which of these drugs is available over the counter as an antitussive?
a. Codeine
b. Dextromethorphan
c. Hydrocodone
d. Butorphanol
74. Dr. Charles is performing a C-section on Sadie, a 3-year-old Dalmatian. The smallest pup was not breathing spontaneously, so the doctor asked you give the following respiratory stimulant.
a. Theophylline (Theo-Dur)
b. Albuterol
c. Doxapram HCl (Dopram)
d. Terbutaline
75. Butorphanol tartrate is an example of a drug that functions on more than one body system. It is both an
a. Antitussive and narcotic analgesic
b. Expectorant and narcotic analgesic
c. Analgesic and expectorant
d. Analgesic and barbiturate
76. The type of drug that would be most helpful for a patient with a productive cough is
a. Antitussive
b. Antihistamine
c. Expectorant
d. Analgesic
77. The anticoagulant diluted in saline or sterile water for injection to form a flush solution for preventing blood clots in intravenous catheters is
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. Coumarin
d. Acid citrate dextrose (ACD)
78. Sox, a 10-year-old M/C Siamese X, was brought to the emergency hospital, crying in pain and unable to walk. He was diagnosed with an arterial thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy. The treatment for this condition is a(n)
a. Hematinic drug
b. Anticoagulant drug
c. Hemostatic drug
d. Fibrinolytic drug
79. The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is
a. Mannitol
b. Spironolactone
c. Chlorothiazide
d. Furosemide
80. Epinephrine
a. Increases the heart rate
b. Decreases the heart rate
c. Decreases the blood pressure
d. Should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine
82. Cosmo, an 11-year-old M/C pug, has recently been diagnosed with mitral insufficiency and was referred to a veterinary cardiologist. The specialist decided to initiate treatment with digoxin, a positive inotrope and negative chronotrope. This means that it
a. Increases the blood pressure and decreases the cardiac output
b. Increases the peripheral vascular resistance and decreases the cardiac output
c. Increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate
d. Increases the heart rate and decreases the blood pressure
83. Scooter, a 13-year-old miniature schnauzer, has arrested under anesthesia for routine dentistry. You run to the crash cart and grab what you know to be the drug of choice for cardiac arrest, which is
a. Epinephrine
b. Lidocaine
c. Digoxin
d. Dobutamine
84. A 3-month-old chow chow is presented to the pet emergency clinic because it has eaten a box of warfarin-based rat poison. Which of the following would be most useful to treat this toxicity?
a. Protamine sulfate
b. Coumarin
c. Streptokinase
d. Vitamin K
85. Which of the following statements about drugs used for cancer chemotherapy is true?
a. They are usually given by mouth.
b. They usually have relatively low margins of safety.
c. They are available over the counter.
d. They are all nephrotoxic.
86. Which of the following side effects is commonly seen with many cancer chemotherapeutic drugs?
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Immunosuppression
c. Constipation
d. Hyperphagia
87. Which of the following would be the least common side effect expected with common cancer chemotherapeutic drugs?
a. Myelosuppression
b. Vomiting and diarrhea
c. Pruritus
d. Alopecia
88. Common drugs of plant origin, such as digoxin and atropine, are ineffective in a cow when administered orally because of
a. Eructation
b. The large size of the rumen
c. Methane gas
d. Digestive microorganisms
89. Which of these tissues is not a normal site for drugs to accumulate to be released later, thereby prolonging the effect of the drug?
a. Pancreas
b. Fat
c. Muscle
d. Liver
90. Chronic use of moderate-to-high doses of glucocorticoids may result in the development of
a. Addisons disease
b. Cushings disease
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Insulinoma
91. Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for treatment of all of the following conditions except
a. Allergies
b. Musculoskeletal problems
c. Infections
d. Immune-mediated disease
92. Glucocorticoids have different durations of activity, a fact that plays an important role in their risk of side effects with long-term use. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the shortest duration of activity?
a. Hydrocortisone
b. Prednisone
c. Dexamethasone
d. Triamcinolone
93. Which of the following statements about glucocorticoids is true?
a. If adverse effects are seen after long-term administration, treatment should be discontinued immediately.
b. They are generally considered safer to use than NSAIDs.
c. They are a type of NSAID.
d. They may cause immune system suppression.
95. Two relatively new NSAIDs used frequently in dogs for the relief of pain and inflammation, especially those associated with osteoarthritis, are
a. Meclofenamic acid (Arquel) and dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
b. Orgotein (superoxide dismutase) and phenylbutazone
c. Carprofen (Rimadyl) and etodolac (EtoGesic)
d. Dipyrone and acetaminophen (Tylenol)
96. Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used
a. In dogs for the treatment of chronic osteoarthritis
b. In horses for treatment of colic
c. In horses for reducing fever
d. In dogs for its anticoagulant activity
97. The species that generally clears NSAIDs most slowly is
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Horse
d. Ruminant
98. What NSAID is administered to cats with a dosing interval of 2 days or more?
a. Aspirin
b. Ibuprofen (Advil)
c. Carprofen (Rimadyl)
d. Naproxen (Naprosyn)
99. The most common side effect of NSAIDs is
a. Polyuria
b. Gastrointestinal ulceration
c. Diarrhea
d. Constipation
100. What precautions should you take when applying DMSO to an animal’s skin?
a. Wear a facial mask to avoid inhaling the fumes.
b. Apply a bandage to cover the area of application.
c. DMSO is irritating and should not be applied to skin.
d. Wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug.
101. The surgeon has completed Buffy’s surgical procedure and asks you to discontinue the inhalant anesthesia. What is absolutely necessary to do when terminating anesthesia in a patient that has been receiving nitrous oxide?
a. Give an injection of the reversal agent.
b. Observe carefully for signs of seizures.
c. Allow the patient to recuperate in a quiet, dark area.
d. Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes.
102. All of the following drugs are controlled substances, and their use must be logged except
a. Propofol (PropoFlo)
b. Diazepam (Valium)
c. Ketamine (Ketaset)
d. Oxymorphone (Numorphan)
103. Malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated primarily with the use of what inhalant anesthetic?
a. Nitrous oxide
b. Sevoflurane (SevoFlo)
c. Halothane (Fluothane)
d. Isoflurane (AErrane)
104. What drug is in the same class as thiopental?
a. Ketamine
b. Diazepam
c. Phenobarbital
d. Atropine
105. An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is
a. Fentanyl
b. Pentazocine (Talwin)
c. Meperidine (Demerol)
d. Butorphanol (Torbugesic)
106. Mrs. Stillman’s poodle Roxy has been diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy. The doctor has decided to dispense what drug, which Mrs. Stillman can administer per rectum, in the event of a seizure at home?
a. Pentobarbital
b. Phenobarbital
c. Diazepam (Valium)
d. Acepromazine (PromAce)
107. A recent graduate veterinary technician is concerned that a sedated patient has a heart rate of 50 beats/min when the heart rate in a dog is normally 60 to 120 beats/min. You ask her which sedative the veterinarian used and were not at all surprised when she told you that the drug used was
a. Medetomidine (Domitor)
b. Diazepam (Valium)
c. Ketamine (Ketaset)
d. Acepromazine (PromAce)
109. You are asked to work in the surgical recovery area. Oreo, a cat, is recovering from an exploratory laparotomy. Oreo was given morphine, in addition to other drugs. You anticipate all of the following except that
a. Oreo will be hypersensitive to sounds.
b. Oreo may vomit and defecate from being given opioids.
c. Oreo most likely will have an elevated respiratory rate.
d. Oreo would be most comfortable recovering in a dark, quiet room.
110. What gas anesthesia demands the greatest degree of patient monitoring, because anesthetic depth changes occur most rapidly?
a. Nitrous oxide
b. Sevoflurane (SevoFlo)
c. Halothane (Fluothane)
d. Isoflurane (AErrane)
111. Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopa–mine are the primary neurotransmitters for the
a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Peripheral nervous system
112. Beuthanasia solution is back ordered at the distributor, so your employer asks you to order a different euthanasia solution. In researching the available drugs, you are reminded that the active ingredient in most euthanasia solutions is
a. Phenobarbital
b. Pentobarbital
c. Methohexital (Brevane)
d. Thiopental (Pentothal)
113. You are working with an equine veterinarian on a breeding farm. You will be sedating a young stallion for an oral examination. You are well aware that the veterinarian will probably not be using what tranquilizer for the procedure?
a. Xylazine (Rompun)
b. Diazepam (Valium)
c. Detomidine (Dormosedan)
d. Acepromazine (PromAce)
114. The newly hired veterinary assistant is cleaning up after a procedure and returns an opened bottle of propofol (PropoFlo) to the refrigerator, stating that it can be used tomorrow on another patient. You explain to her that
a. Propofol should be stored at room temperature rather than in the refrigerator.
b. The bottles are designed to contain only enough drug for one patient, and there likely will not be enough drug left to anesthetize another patient tomorrow.
c. Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins, so it is unwise to use the remains of an opened bottle.
d. The bottle has been contaminated from the first patient, and there is a possibility that contagious diseases can be transmitted in this way.
115. You are out on an ambulatory call with Dr. Burrows to Milkman’s Dairy. You are asked to bring the xylazine from the truck to sedate the patient. You are well aware that when using this drug in the bovine, you must
a. Use adequate doses, because cattle tend to be resistant to its effects
b. Always use it concurrently with a barbiturate to achieve adequate analgesia
c. Not use xylazine because it is contraindicated in this species
d. Use it at about 1/10 of the equine dose
116. You were assigned to work the front office at the hospital today. When you walk back to the treatment area, you notice a cat under anesthesia. The cat has eyes wide open and unblinking and limbs stiffly distended and is salivating profusely. Your highly educated guess is that this cat was anesthetized using which of the following drugs?
a. Xylazine (Rompun)
b. Medetomidine (Domitor)
c. Ketamine (Ketaset)
d. Propofol (PropoFlo)
118. Acepromazine should be avoided in
a. Patients with a history of seizures
b. Aggressive patients
c. Geriatric patients
d. Doberman pinschers
119. The behavioral drug group that may be used to stimulate appetite in cats is
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Tricyclic antidepressants
c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
d. Progestins
120. A progestin, often used in the past for the treatment of inappropriate elimination in cats, that has now fallen out of favor because of serious potential side effects, including mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma, is
a. Megestrol acetate (Ovaban)
b. Oxazepam (Serax)
c. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
d. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
121. Which tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for used in dogs and cats to control separation anxiety?
a. Buspirone (BuSpar)
b. Selegiline (Anipryl)
c. Paroxetine (Paxil)
d. Clomipramine (Clomicalm)
122. A 12-year-old spayed female golden retriever is brought into your clinic with a history of waking up in her bed in a puddle of urine. A complete blood count (CBC), profile, and urinalysis reveal no sign of urinary tract disease. The doctor tells you to fill a prescription for phenylpropanolamine. The doctor is choosing this drug because
a. It treats bladder atony by increasing bladder tone.
b. It treats urinary incontinence by decreasing urethral sphincter tone.
c. It treats urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone.
d. It treats bladder atony by decreasing bladder tone.
123. Erythropoietin (Epogen) is primarily used in the following feline patients:
a. Cats with anemia due to chronic renal failure
b. Cats with anemia due to rodenticide toxicity
c. Cats with aortic thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy
d. Cats suffering from Tylenol toxicity
124. Which of the following drugs is used to decrease gastric acid production by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach?
a. Famotidine (Pepcid)
b. Sucralfate (Carafate)
c. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
d. Erythropoietin (Epogen)
125. Amphojel and Basaljel are drugs in the general category of
a. Potassium supplements
b. Antihypertensives
c. Urinary acidifiers
d. Phosphate binders
126. Mr. Williams just adopted a mixed-breed puppy from the local animal shelter, and it was suggested that he bring it to a veterinarian to treat the worms noticed in its feces. Mr. Williams wanted to save some money and went to the local pet shop to buy a dewormer. The product that he purchased was most likely
a. Pyrantel pamoate (Nemex)
b. Piperazine (Pipa-tabs)
c. Fenbendazole (Panacur)
d. Ivermectin (Ivomec)
127. A heartworm preventive that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is
a. Diethylcarbamazine (Filaribits)
b. Milbemycin (Interceptor)
c. Ivermectin (Heartgard)
d. Selamectin (Revolution)
128. If a drug package insert states that the drug is a coccidiostat, against what group of parasites will this drug be effective?
a. Ascarids (Toxocara, Toxascaris)
b. Tapeworms (Taenia)
c. Protozoa (Eimeria, Isospora)
d. Flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke)
129. Which of the following drugs can cause severe tissue necrosis if given perivascularly?
a. Phenylbutazone (Butazolidin)
b. Oxymorphone (Numorphan)
c. Propofol (PropoFlo)
d. Ketamine (Ketaset)
131. By what route is insulin usually administered in cases of uncomplicated diabetes?
a. Intramuscular
b. Subcutaneous
c. Intravenous
d. Oral
132. Insulin concentration is measured in
a. Milligrams per milliliter
b. Milliequivalents per milliliter
c. Units per milliliter
d. Grams per milliliter
133. Oral hypoglycemic drugs, such as glipizide (Glucotrol), are used to treat
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Non–insulin-dependent diabetes
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Pancreatitis
134. The primary function of insulin is to
a. Regulate the metabolic processes of the body
b. Regulate digestion through secretion of gastrointestinal hormones
c. Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells
d. Control reproductive function
135. Resuspension of NPH insulin is done by
a. Gently rolling the bottle
b. Vigorous shaking of the bottle
c. Gentle heating of the bottle in warm water
d. Refrigeration of the bottle
136. Altrenogest, which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals, is a synthetic
a. Estrogen
b. Androgen
c. Progestin
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
137. Serious potential side effects of estrogen administration include
a. Hemorrhage and thromboembolism
b. Bone marrow suppression and pyometra
c. Cardiac arrhythmias and pulmonary edema
d. Renal failure and gastric ulcers
138. When diethylstilbestrol (DES), a synthetic estrogen, is used at higher doses, it can have the potentially dangerous side effect of
a. Gastric ulceration
b. Cardiac arrhythmias
c. Bone marrow suppression
d. Hepatopathy
139. Kaolin and pectin (Kaopectate) and bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) are examples of
a. Narcotic analgesics
b. Antispasmodics
c. Anticholinergics
d. Protectants
140. Psyllium and Metamucil are examples of
a. Saline cathartics
b. Bulk laxatives
c. Lubricants
d. Irritant cathartics
141. What is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemetics?
a. CNS depression
b. Diarrhea
c. Lowering of the seizure threshold
d. Hypotension
142. A stool softener often helpful in patients recovering from anal surgery is
a. Docusate sodium succinate (DSS, Colace)
b. Magnesium hydroxide
c. Mineral oil
d. Bran
143. The most widely used type of antiemetic drugs used to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats are the
a. Phenothiazines
b. Antihistamines
c. Anticholinergics
d. Antispasmodics
144. The emetic of choice in cats is
a. Xylazine
b. Syrup of ipecac
c. Apomorphine
d. Hydrogen peroxide
145. The emetic of choice in dogs is
a. Xylazine
b. Syrup of ipecac
c. Apomorphine
d. Hydrogen peroxide
146. Spike the dog ingested his owner’s cardiac medication about half an hour ago. The veterinarian instructs you to give him an emetic that may be administered into the conjunctival sac, then flush as necessary. The name of the drug is
147. A coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is
a. Kaopectate
b. Sucralfate
c. Cimetidine
d. Misoprostol
148. Fleet (sodium phosphate) enemas are contraindicated in what species?
a. Horses
b. Ruminants
c. Cats
d. Pigs
149. The principal site of drug biotransformation is the
a. Liver
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