13. Which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body?

14. All of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except

15. Which drug is not classified as a barbiturate?

16. Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except

17. At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?

18. Opioid drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as

19. The advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it

20. Routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided, because it may

21. Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?

22. Which drug is a narcotic antagonist?

23. A 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains

24. Depressant preanesthetic medication may have what effect on the anesthesia procedure?

25. Which drug is an antagonist of xylazine?

26. Diazepam is used to produce

27. Epinephrine

29. A disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it

30. How many milligrams per milliliter (mg/ml) does a 2% lidocaine solution contain?

31. What volume of thiopental sodium should be administered intravenously to a 500-kg horse for induction of anesthesia? The dosage is 8 mg/kg, and you are using a 10% solution.

32. Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of

33. Which of the following is not a good reason to use a preanesthetic?

34. If 180 ml of a 5% solution of guaifenesin is administered to a 150-kg foal, how many mg/kg would be administered?

35. Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is

36. Mask inductions are

37. Which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration?

38. The dosage of acepromazine is 0.1 mg/kg, and the maximum dose is 4 mg. How many milligrams would you administer to a 60-kg dog?

39. Halothane concentrations of 1% to 2% may produce any of the following except

40. The adverse effects of anesthetic compounds are

41. The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is

43. Acepromazine should be avoided in

44. In dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except

45. When comparing inhalation anesthetics, you should use the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) as a guide in assessing

46. Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?

47. Which inhalant anesthetic is associated with the longest induction and recovery times?

48. In rabbits, intravenous anesthetics should be injected into which of the following veins?

49. The oxygen flow rate necessary to prevent rebreathing of exhaled gases with an Ayre’s T piece is

50. A half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of

51. When inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is

52. Precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane, work correctly when placed

53. If the unidirectional valves are missing from an anesthetic machine, it is

54. The oxygen flush valve

55. The advantages of a nonrebreathing system, as compared with a circle breathing system, include all of the following, except

56. The minimum fresh gas flow in a semiclosed system is correctly determined by the

58. Vaporizers may be classified according to all of the following, except the

59. An intravenous catheter should be

60. The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least

61. Pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of

62. Which statement concerning soda lime is least accurate?

63. If the rebreathing bag is empty during anesthesia, all of the following may be the cause, except

64. Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color?

65. The approximate volume of oxygen in an E cylinder is

66. The approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is

67. The pressure of gas that enters the flowmeter of an inhalant anesthetic machine is

68. Which statement concerning the pressure manometer in an inhalant anesthetic circuit is least accurate?

69. Activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except

70. According to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), the maximum recommended level of exposure of people to volatile anesthetic agents in the environment is

72. All of the following are methods that reduce waste gas levels except

73. When inflating the cuff on an endotracheal tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if cuff inflation requires injection of more than what volume of air?

74. Ideally an endotracheal tube should be inserted so that

75. When an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be placed in

76. Which of the following is not an advantage for endotracheal intubation?

77. Which animal is most likely to experience laryngospasm during endotracheal intubation?

78. Which of the following is the most common complication of endotracheal intubation?

79. The best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is

80. The preferred method for treating a cat with laryngospasm is to

81. Which of the following is not an advantage of using an endotracheal tube?

82. In a Siamese cat, the endotracheal tube should be removed

84. What is the best technique to secure an endotracheal tube to an animal?

85. Which statement concerning use of intravenous anesthesia in large animals is least accurate?

86. When monitoring the vital signs of an anesthetized patient, you must observe and record all of the following, except

87. The responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient’s vital signs and recording observations at approximately

88. Adequate oxygen may be evaluated subjectively during anesthesia by the

89. Hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by

90. In nonbrachycephalic breeds of dogs recovering from anesthesia, the endotracheal tube should be removed when the

91. Concerning physical stimulation of the recovering anesthetized patient, which statement is least accurate?

92. It is advisable to turn the anesthetized patient from side to side during the recovery period of anesthesia. Concerning this, which statement is least accurate?

94. Following discontinuation of the anesthetic gas, periodic bagging of the patient with pure oxygen is advisable, because it

95. In the anesthetized surgical patient, pale mucous membranes can indicate all of the following except

96. In patients with which of the following characteristics is it recommended to wait a longer period before extubation because of the likelihood of vomiting or airway obstruction?

97. Providing good nursing care for the recovering anesthetized patient is the duty of the attending anesthetist. Which of the following is not advisable for a patient immediately following surgery?

98. The minimum acceptable heart rate (beats per minute) for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is

99. It is cause for concern if an anesthetized cat’s heart rate falls below

100. An anesthetist should be aware of the effects of anesthetic agents on the patient. When used as preanesthetics, atropine and acepromazine can cause all of the following, except

101. A capillary refill time that is over 2 seconds indicates

102. Use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed

103. When monitoring the mucous membrane color of an anesthetized patient with pigmented gingivae, you could use each of the following alternative sites except

104. During the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, respiratory rates lower than how many breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian?

105. Some anesthetists routinely bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5 minutes to help prevent

107. If the rectum of a patient is covered by a surgical drape or is otherwise inaccessible to the anesthetist, a rough estimate of body temperature can be obtained by

108. Throughout anesthesia, the animal’s temperature should be maintained as close to normal as possible. Hypothermia can be prevented by all of the following measures except

109. Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal syndrome to the anesthetized patient. Which of these species is most prone to this condition?

110. Use of succinylcholine in combination with general anesthetics may be advantageous to the surgeon during certain procedures, but it gives the anesthetist one less measure with which to monitor anesthetic depth. What measure would be of no use in monitoring patients given succinylcholine?

111. Using ketamine as an anesthetic agent diminishes the value of what measure in assessing anesthetic depth?

112. Which statement concerning eye position, pupil size, and responsiveness to light as indicators of anesthetic depth is least accurate?

113. The presence or absence of salivary and lacrimal secretions may give clues regarding anesthetic depth. In an animal that has not received an anticholinergic, which statement concerning observance of these secretions is most accurate?

114. The anesthetized patient may respond to surgical stimulation if the anesthetic depth is inadequate. Response to a painful stimulus may be indicated by all of the following except

116. A 10-year-old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80 beats/min, its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. What should be your response or actions to the condition of this animal?

117. What stage of anesthesia may be characterized by vocalization, struggling, and breath holding?

118. A dog received intramuscularly the correct dose of xylazine. Second-degree heart block and bradycardia developed. Based on the most common cause of this adverse reaction, what would be the best therapy?

119. An abnormally elevated central venous pressure that develops during anesthesia and surgery in an animal receiving intravenous fluids may indicate

120. A 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains how much epinephrine per milliliter?

121. Cardiac arrhythmias that occur during anesthesia are commonly associated with all of the following except

122. Mean arterial blood pressure of the isoflurane-anesthetized horse

123. Surgical evaluation of a dog hit by a car revealed a PCV of 18% and plasma protein below 2.5 g/dl. All of the following are true, except the

124. The estimated blood volume in dogs is

125. The volume of blood administered to a patient is determined by all of the following except

126. While monitoring a horse during inhalation anesthesia, you note that the heart rate suddenly increases to 80 beats/min. Your most appropriate response is to

128. Whole blood should be administered in which of the following presurgical situations?

129. A 10-kg dog with a ventricular arrhythmia is treated with an IV lidocaine drip at 50 μg/kg/min. How many drops per minute from a minidrip infusion set (60 drops/ml) are necessary if the concentration of lidocaine is 1 mg/ml?

130. The most common arrhythmia associated with use of thiobarbiturates in dogs during induction of anesthesia is

131. Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following except

132. A cardiac rhythm disturbance detected shortly after induction of anesthesia may be the result of any of the following except

133. Hypothermia has become significant in a 4-kg anesthetized cat. The best way to restore body heat is

134. In a cat that is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be present except

135. An isoflurane-anesthetized cat suddenly begins breathing 30 times a minute during a surgical procedure. Your first response should be to

136. If a dog is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be seen except

137. A dog anesthetized with halothane in 99% oxygen develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the drug of choice for therapy?

138. Dobutamine is used in emergency anesthetic and clinical situations to

139. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a medium-sized dog, you should maintain a ventilation rate of how many breaths per minute?

140. During CPR, adequate cardiac massage is present when